affinity mask - license

In per processor license for Enterprise version of SQL Server 2000, can we
change the affinity mask variable to change the CPU usage and hence restric
t
the number of sql server per processor licenses?
Example: In a 4 CPU server, single OS, if I change the sql server affinity
so that it only uses CPU1 and CPU2, and does not use the 3 & 4 processors,
then I would pay only for 2 per processor licenses for SQL Server 2000?No. You need # of processors corresponding to the numbers that the host OS c
an see and uses. Here's
a quote from http://www.microsoft.com/sql/howtobuy/faq.mspx
A Processor license gives you the right to install any number of copies of S
QL Server 2000 on a
single computer, as long as you have purchased Processor licenses for all of
the processors on that
computer. If you have made a processor inaccessible to all operating system
copies on which the SQL
Server software is set up to run, you do not need a software license for tha
t processor.
Tibor Karaszi, SQL Server MVP
http://www.karaszi.com/sqlserver/default.asp
http://www.solidqualitylearning.com/
Blog: http://solidqualitylearning.com/blogs/tibor/
"Pari" <Pari@.discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message
news:627E25D7-42D2-4BBE-9991-C204FA1FD206@.microsoft.com...
> In per processor license for Enterprise version of SQL Server 2000, can we
> change the affinity mask variable to change the CPU usage and hence restr
ict
> the number of sql server per processor licenses?
> Example: In a 4 CPU server, single OS, if I change the sql server affinity
> so that it only uses CPU1 and CPU2, and does not use the 3 & 4 processors,
> then I would pay only for 2 per processor licenses for SQL Server 2000?
>
>|||I read the Licensing FAQs.. However everywhere it says:
"If you have made a processor inaccessible to all operating system copies on
which the SQL Server software is set up to run, you do not need a software
license for that processor."
Why would you make a processor inaccessible to OS? Do you mean when you have
2 or more OS installed on the same server?
Can you give an illustration of this scenario for clarification, the FAQ and
licesing link does not say much?
Thanks
"Tibor Karaszi" wrote:

> No. You need # of processors corresponding to the numbers that the host OS
can see and uses. Here's
> a quote from http://www.microsoft.com/sql/howtobuy/faq.mspx
> A Processor license gives you the right to install any number of copies of
SQL Server 2000 on a
> single computer, as long as you have purchased Processor licenses for all
of the processors on that
> computer. If you have made a processor inaccessible to all operating syste
m copies on which the SQL
> Server software is set up to run, you do not need a software license for t
hat processor.
>
> --
> Tibor Karaszi, SQL Server MVP
> http://www.karaszi.com/sqlserver/default.asp
> http://www.solidqualitylearning.com/
> Blog: http://solidqualitylearning.com/blogs/tibor/
>
> "Pari" <Pari@.discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message
> news:627E25D7-42D2-4BBE-9991-C204FA1FD206@.microsoft.com...
>|||You might want5 to approach an MS sales rep on this. As I understand it, the
reasoning why just
cutting down affinity mask doesn't cut it is that everything SQL Server does
it does through the
OS...
The licensing terms used to say "numbers of physical processors in the box"
(or something to that
effect), but as big boxes came out where you started partitioning the OS, it
made more sense to have
it "number of processors that the OS can use", methinks...
Tibor Karaszi, SQL Server MVP
http://www.karaszi.com/sqlserver/default.asp
http://www.solidqualitylearning.com/
Blog: http://solidqualitylearning.com/blogs/tibor/
"Pari" <Pari@.discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message
news:D38F26A9-3F72-4720-B48C-CF581801526D@.microsoft.com...[vbcol=seagreen]
>I read the Licensing FAQs.. However everywhere it says:
> "If you have made a processor inaccessible to all operating system copies
on
> which the SQL Server software is set up to run, you do not need a software
> license for that processor."
> Why would you make a processor inaccessible to OS? Do you mean when you ha
ve
> 2 or more OS installed on the same server?
> Can you give an illustration of this scenario for clarification, the FAQ a
nd
> licesing link does not say much?
> Thanks
> "Tibor Karaszi" wrote:
>